This may be the wrong sub to ask this question, but I’m not sure where else it would fit. If you guys know if a better one, I’d appreciate the input.
My spouse works at a private medical practice (Kansas) and spouse claims they were told that in order to use a (paid) sick day, an employee has to use all of their vacation days/PTO first. Personally, I think that is ridiculous (and possibly illegal) to force an employee to burn their vacation days in the first few months of the year for a legit sickness just to reach the “sick days”. It could really screw people at the end of the year if they want to use their vacation days for.. you know.. vacation. Lord knows they wouldn’t allow sick days to be used for vacation.
Is this legal if the company recognizes two different types of leave? Where/who would we talk to to get a ruling on whether this is allowed?